Practice Exam  - Element 2:  "EXTRA  CLASS"

Expires June 30, 2016

   E1A08 - 1
   1. If a station in a message forwarding system inadvertently forwards a message that is in violation of FCC rules, who is primarily accountable for the rules violation?


   E1B12 - 1
   2. What is the highest modulation index permitted at the highest modulation frequency for angle modulation?


   E1C01 - 3
    3. What is a remotely controlled station?


   E1D06 - 0
   4. Which of the following special provisions must a space station incorporate in order to comply with space station requirements?


   E1E08 - 2
   5. To which of the following examinees may a VE not administer an examination?


   E1F07 - 3
   6. When may an amateur station send a message to a business?


   E2A13 - 1
   7. What type of satellite appears to stay in one position in the sky?

   E2B16 - 3
   8. Which of the following is the video standard used by North American Fast Scan ATV stations?

   E2C10 - 3
   9. Why might a DX station state that they are listening on another frequency?

   E2D05 - 1
   10. Which of the following techniques is normally used by low Earth orbiting digital satellites to relay messages around the world?

   E2E04 - 0
    11. What is indicated when one of the ellipses in an FSK crossed-ellipse display suddenly disappears?

   E3A09 - 2
   12. Which of the following frequency ranges is well suited for meteor-scatter communications?

   E3B01 - 0
   13. What is transequatorial propagation?

   E3C14 - 3
   14. Why does the radio-path horizon distance exceed the geometric horizon?

   E4A05 - 1
   15. Which of the following test instruments is used to display intermodulation distortion products in an SSB transmission?

   E4B08 - 2
   16. Which of the following is a characteristic of a good DC voltmeter?

   E4C14 - 3
   17. On which of the following frequencies might a signal be transmitting which is generating a spurious image signal in a receiver tuned to 14.300 MHz and which uses a 455 kHz IF frequency?

   E4D02 - 0
   18. Which of the following describes two problems caused by poor dynamic range in a communications receiver?

   E4E09 - 2
   19. What undesirable effect can occur when using an IF noise blanker?

   E5A04 - 0
   20. What is the magnitude of the impedance of a circuit with a resistor, an inductor and a capacitor all in parallel, at resonance?

   E5B13 - 3
   21. What is the phase angle between the voltage across and the current through a series RLC circuit if XC is 250 ohms, R is 1 kilohm, and XL is 500 ohms?

   E5C20 - 1
   22. Which point in Figure E5-2 best represents the impedance of a series circuit consisting of a 300 ohm resistor and an 18 microhenry inductor at 3.505 MHz?

   E5D16 - 2
   23. What is the power factor of an RL circuit having a 30 degree phase angle between the voltage and the current?

   E6A03 - 2
   24. What are the majority charge carriers in P-type semiconductor material?

   E6B13 - 1
   25. What type of bias is required for an LED to emit light?

   E6C05 - 3
   26. Which of the following is an advantage of CMOS logic devices over TTL devices?

   E6D11 - 2
   27. How many turns will be required to produce a 1-mH inductor using a ferrite toroidal core that has an inductance index (A L) value of 523 millihenrys/1000 turns?

   E6E09 - 1
   28. Which of the following must be done to insure that a crystal oscillator provides the frequency specified by the crystal manufacturer?

   E6F08 - 2
   29. Why are optoisolators often used in conjunction with solid state circuits when switching 120 VAC?

   E7A02 - 2
   30. How many output level changes are obtained for every two trigger pulses applied to the input of a T flip-flop circuit?

   E7B17 - 0
   31. Why are third-order intermodulation distortion products of particular concern in linear power amplifiers?

   E7C06 - 2
   32. What are the distinguishing features of an elliptical filter?

   E7D10 - 0
   33. What is the purpose of C3 in the circuit shown in Figure E7-3?

   E7E04 - 0
   34. What is one way a single-sideband phone signal can be generated?

   E7F11 - 2
   35. What is an advantage of a period-measuring frequency counter over a direct-count type?

   E7G11 - 1
   36. What absolute voltage gain can be expected from the circuit in Figure E7-4 when R1 is 3300 ohms and RF is 47 kilohms?

   E7H03 - 0
   37. How is positive feedback supplied in a Hartley oscillator?

   E8A01 - 0
   38. What type of wave is made up of a sine wave plus all of its odd harmonics?

   E8B03 - 0
   39. What is the modulation index of an FM-phone signal having a maximum frequency deviation of 3000 Hz either side of the carrier frequency, when the modulating frequency is 1000 Hz?

   E8C09 - 0
   40. Which of these techniques causes a digital signal to appear as wide-band noise to a conventional receiver?

   E8D16 - 0
   41. What is the RMS value of a 340-volt peak-to-peak pure sine wave?

   E9A01 - 2
   42. Which of the following describes an isotropic antenna?

   E9B12 - 3
   43. What is the far-field of an antenna?

   E9C10 - 0
   44. How many elevation lobes appear in the forward direction of the antenna radiation pattern shown in Figure E9-2?

   E9D13 - 1
   45. What happens to feed point impedance at the base of a fixed-length HF mobile antenna as the frequency of operation is lowered?

   E9E03 - 3
   46. What is the name of the matching system that uses a section of transmission line connected in parallel with the feed line at the feed point?

   E9F06 - 2
   47. What is the approximate physical length of an air-insulated, parallel conductor transmission line that is electrically one-half wavelength long at 14.10 MHz?

   E9G05 - 0
   48. What type of chart is shown in Figure E9-3?

   E9H12 - 1
   49. What is an advantage of using a shielded loop antenna for direction finding?

   E0A01 - 2
   50. What, if any, are the differences between the radiation produced by radioactive materials and the electromagnetic energy radiated by an antenna?