Practice Exam  - Element 2:  "EXTRA  CLASS"

Expires June 30, 2016

   E1A11 - 1
   1. What authorization or licensing is required when operating an amateur station aboard a US-registered vessel in international waters?


   E1B07 - 1
   2. Where must the carrier frequency of a CW signal be set to comply with FCC rules for 60 meter operation?


   E1C06 - 2
    3. Which of the following statements concerning remotely controlled amateur stations is true?


   E1D10 - 1
   4. Which amateur stations are eligible to be telecommand stations?


   E1E09 - 0
   5. What may be the penalty for a VE who fraudulently administers or certifies an examination?


   E1F05 - 3
   6. Amateur stations may not transmit in which of the following frequency segments if they are located in the contiguous 48 states and north of Line A?


   E2A05 - 3
   7. What do the letters in a satellite's mode designator specify?

   E2B03 - 3
   8. How is an interlaced scanning pattern generated in a fast-scan (NTSC) television system?

   E2C08 - 0
   9. Why are received spread-spectrum signals resistant to interference?

   E2D09 - 3
   10. Under clear communications conditions, which of these digital communications modes has the fastest data throughput?

   E2E11 - 0
    11. What is the difference between direct FSK and audio FSK?

   E3A04 - 3
   12. What type of receiving system is desirable for EME communications?

   E3B11 - 2
   13. Which of the following describes gray-line propagation?

   E3C11 - 1
   14. From the contiguous 48 states, in which approximate direction should an antenna be pointed to take maximum advantage of aurora propagation?

   E4A04 - 0
   15. Which of the following test instruments is used to display spurious signals from a radio transmitter?

   E4B10 - 1
   16. Which of the following describes a method to measure intermodulation distortion in an SSB transmitter?

   E4C11 - 1
   17. Which of the following is a desirable amount of selectivity for an amateur SSB phone receiver?

   E4D14 - 0
   18. Which of the following is a way to reduce the likelihood of receiver desensitization?

   E4E01 - 0
   19. Which of the following types of receiver noise can often be reduced by use of a receiver noise blanker?

   E5A10 - 0
   20. What is the half-power bandwidth of a parallel resonant circuit that has a resonant frequency of 1.8 MHz and a Q of 95?

   E5B12 - 2
   21. What is the phase angle between the voltage across and the current through a series RLC circuit if XC is 75 ohms, R is 100 ohms, and XL is 50 ohms?

   E5C03 - 0
   22. In polar coordinates, what is the impedance of a network consisting of a 300-ohm-reactance capacitor, a 600-ohm-reactance inductor, and a 400-ohm resistor, all connected in series?

   E5D16 - 2
   23. What is the power factor of an RL circuit having a 30 degree phase angle between the voltage and the current?

   E6A09 - 0
   24. What is a depletion-mode FET?

   E6B09 - 2
   25. What is a common use for point contact diodes?

   E6C01 - 2
   26. What is the recommended power supply voltage for TTL series integrated circuits?

   E6D05 - 1
   27. What is a liquid-crystal display (LCD)?

   E6E12 - 1
   28. What is a 'Jones filter' as used as part of a HF receiver IF stage?

   E6F03 - 3
   29. What is the most common configuration of an optoisolator or optocoupler?

   E7A13 - 1
   30. What is an SR or RS flip-flop?

   E7B21 - 0
   31. Which of the following devices is generally best suited for UHF or microwave power amplifier applications?

   E7C11 - 3
   32. Which of the following is the common name for a filter network which is equivalent to two L networks connected back-to-back with the inductors in series and the capacitors in shunt at the input and output?

   E7D10 - 0
   33. What is the purpose of C3 in the circuit shown in Figure E7-3?

   E7E06 - 0
   34. Why is de-emphasis commonly used in FM communications receivers?

   E7F07 - 0
   35. What determines the accuracy of a frequency counter?

   E7G09 - 3
   36. What will be the output voltage of the circuit shown in Figure E7-4 if R1 is 1000 ohms, RF is 10,000 ohms, and 0.23 volts dc is applied to the input?

   E7H11 - 2
   37. What are the major spectral impurity components of direct digital synthesizers?

   E8A10 - 1
   38. Which of the following is a distinguishing characteristic of a pulse waveform?

   E8B01 - 3
   39. What is the term for the ratio between the frequency deviation of an RF carrier wave, and the modulating frequency of its corresponding FM-phone signal?

   E8C06 - 2
   40. What is the necessary bandwidth of a 170-hertz shift, 300-baud ASCII transmission?

   E8D05 - 3
   41. If an RMS-reading AC voltmeter reads 65 volts on a sinusoidal waveform, what is the peak-to-peak voltage?

   E9A15 - 2
   42. What is meant by the radiation resistance of an antenna?

   E9B11 - 2
   43. What is a disadvantage of decreasing the number of wire segments in an antenna model below the guideline of 10 segments per half-wavelength?

   E9C03 - 2
   44. What is the radiation pattern of two 1/4-wavelength vertical antennas spaced 1/2-wavelength apart and fed in phase?

   E9D13 - 1
   45. What happens to feed point impedance at the base of a fixed-length HF mobile antenna as the frequency of operation is lowered?

   E9E10 - 2
   46. Which of these choices is an effective way to match an antenna with a 100-ohm feed point impedance to a 50-ohm coaxial cable feed line?

   E9F16 - 3
   47. Which of the following is a significant difference between foam-dielectric coaxial cable and solid-dielectric cable, assuming all other parameters are the same?

   E9G06 - 1
   48. On the Smith chart shown in Figure E9-3, what is the name for the large outer circle on which the reactance arcs terminate?

   E9H12 - 1
   49. What is an advantage of using a shielded loop antenna for direction finding?

   E0A05 - 1
   50. What is one of the potential hazards of using microwaves in the amateur radio bands?