Practice Exam  - Element 2:  "EXTRA  CLASS"

Expires June 30, 2016


   E1A12 - 2
   1. With your transceiver displaying the carrier frequency of CW signals, you hear a DX station's CQ on 3.500 MHz. Is it legal to return the call using CW on the same frequency?




  
 

   E1B02 - 3
   2. Which of the following factors might cause the physical location of an amateur station apparatus or antenna structure to be restricted?





 

   E1C09 - 3
    3. Which of these frequencies are available for an automatically controlled repeater operating below 30 MHz?





 

   E1D09 - 1
   4. Which amateur service UHF bands have frequencies available for a space station?





 

   E1E07 - 1
   5. What should a VE do if a candidate fails to comply with the examiner's instructions during an amateur operator license examination?





 

   E1F08 - 0
   6. Which of the following types of amateur station communications are prohibited?





 

   E2A12 - 3
   7. What is one way to predict the location of a satellite at a given time?






   E2B13 - 2
   8. How many lines are commonly used in each frame on an amateur slow-scan color television picture?






   E2C01 - 0
   9. Which of the following is true about contest operating?






   E2D08 - 0
   10. Which of the following types of packet frames is used to transmit APRS beacon data?






   E2E10 - 2
    11. Which of these digital communications modes has the narrowest bandwidth?






   E3A08 - 0
   12. When a meteor strikes the Earth's atmosphere, a cylindrical region of free electrons is formed at what layer of the ionosphere?







   E3B11 - 2
   13. Which of the following describes gray-line propagation?






   E3C04 - 0
   14. Which emission mode is best for Aurora propagation?






   E4A09 - 0
   15. Which of the following describes a good method for measuring the intermodulation distortion of your own PSK signal?






   E4B13 - 0
   16. How is the compensation of an oscilloscope probe typically adjusted?






   E4C08 - 1
   17. How might lowering the noise figure affect receiver performance?






   E4D02 - 0
   18. Which of the following describes two problems caused by poor dynamic range in a communications receiver?






   E4E12 - 0
   19. What is one disadvantage of using some types of automatic DSP notch-filters when attempting to copy CW signals?






   E5A17 - 0
   20. What is the resonant frequency of a parallel RLC circuit if R is 47 ohms, L is 25 microhenrys and C is 10 picofarads?






   E5B03 - 3
   21. The capacitor in an RC circuit is discharged to what percentage of the starting voltage after two time constants?






   E5C23 - 3
   22. Which point on Figure E5-2 best represents the impedance of a series circuit consisting of a 300-ohm resistor, a 0.64-microhenry inductor and an 85-picofarad capacitor at 24.900 MHz?






   E5D12 - 1
   23. How many watts are consumed in a circuit having a power factor of 0.2 if the input is 100-V AC at 4 amperes?






   E6A04 - 2
   24. What is the name given to an impurity atom that adds holes to a semiconductor crystal structure?






   E6B07 - 1
   25. What is the failure mechanism when a junction diode fails due to excessive current?






   E6C11 - 2
   26. In Figure E6-5, what is the schematic symbol for the NOT operation (inverter)?






   E6D09 - 2
   27. What devices are commonly used as VHF and UHF parasitic suppressors at the input and output terminals of transistorized HF amplifiers?






   E6E07 - 1
   28. Which of the following techniques is typically used to construct a MMIC-based microwave amplifier?






   E6F09 - 3
   29. What is the efficiency of a photovoltaic cell?







   E7A13 - 1
   30. What is an SR or RS flip-flop?







   E7B20 - 1
   31. What is a parametric amplifier?






   E7C05 - 3
   32. Which filter type is described as having ripple in the passband and a sharp cutoff?






   E7D06 - 2
   33. What is the purpose of Q1 in the circuit shown in Figure E7-3?







   E7E12 - 3
   34. What is a frequency discriminator stage in a FM receiver?







   E7F05 - 3
   35. Which of the following is a technique for providing high stability oscillators needed for microwave transmission and reception?






   E7G13 - 2
   36. What is meant by the term op-amp input-offset voltage?






   E7H09 - 0
   37. What type of frequency synthesizer circuit uses a phase accumulator, lookup table, digital to analog converter and a low-pass anti-alias filter?






   E8A14 - 0
   38. Which of these methods is commonly used to convert analog signals to digital signals?






   E8B08 - 3
   39. What parameter does the modulating signal vary in a pulse-position modulation system?






   E8C09 - 0
   40. Which of these techniques causes a digital signal to appear as wide-band noise to a conventional receiver?






   E8D08 - 3
   41. Which of the following best describes electromagnetic waves traveling in free space?






   E9A07 - 2
   42. What is a folded dipole antenna?






   E9B12 - 3
   43. What is the far-field of an antenna?






   E9C04 - 1
   44. Which of the following describes a basic unterminated rhombic antenna?






   E9D13 - 1
   45. What happens to feed point impedance at the base of a fixed-length HF mobile antenna as the frequency of operation is lowered?






   E9E01 - 1
   46. What system matches a high-impedance transmission line to a lower impedance antenna by connecting the line to the driven element in two places spaced a fraction of a wavelength each side of element center?






   E9F02 - 2
   47. Which of the following determines the velocity factor of a transmission line?






   E9G09 - 0
   48. What third family of circles is often added to a Smith chart during the process of solving problems?






   E9H08 - 0
   49. What is the function of a sense antenna?






   E0A11 - 2
   50. Which of the following injuries can result from using high-power UHF or microwave transmitters?