Practice Exam  - Element 2:  "EXTRA  CLASS"

Expires June 30, 2016

   E1A07 - 3
   1. What is the only amateur band where transmission on specific channels rather than a range of frequencies is permitted?


   E1B04 - 2
   2. What must be done before placing an amateur station within an officially designated wilderness area or wildlife preserve, or an area listed in the National Register of Historical Places?


   E1C09 - 3
    3. Which of these frequencies are available for an automatically controlled repeater operating below 30 MHz?


   E1D10 - 1
   4. Which amateur stations are eligible to be telecommand stations?


   E1E10 - 2
   5. What must the administering VEs do after the administration of a successful examination for an amateur operator license?


   E1F14 - 0
   6. Under what circumstances might the FCC issue a 'Special Temporary Authority' (STA) to an amateur station?


   E2A04 - 1
   7. What is meant by the term mode as applied to an amateur radio satellite?

   E2B09 - 3
   8. What hardware, other than a receiver with SSB capability and a suitable computer, is needed to decode SSTV using Digital Radio Mondiale (DRM)?

   E2C02 - 0
   9. Which of the following best describes the term 'self-spotting' in regards to contest operating?

   E2D05 - 1
   10. Which of the following techniques is normally used by low Earth orbiting digital satellites to relay messages around the world?

   E2E03 - 2
    11. How is Forward Error Correction implemented?

   E3A07 - 3
   12. What frequency range would you normally tune to find EME signals in the 70 cm band?

   E3B09 - 0
   13. At what time of day is gray-line propagation most likely to occur?

   E3C14 - 3
   14. Why does the radio-path horizon distance exceed the geometric horizon?

   E4A02 - 3
   15. Which of the following parameters would a spectrum analyzer display on the horizontal axis?

   E4B13 - 0
   16. How is the compensation of an oscilloscope probe typically adjusted?

   E4C05 - 1
   17. What does a value of -174 dBm/Hz represent with regard to the noise floor of a receiver?

   E4D14 - 0
   18. Which of the following is a way to reduce the likelihood of receiver desensitization?

   E4E10 - 3
   19. What is a common characteristic of interference caused by a touch controlled electrical device?

   E5A07 - 0
   20. What is the magnitude of the current at the input of a parallel RLC circuit at resonance?

   E5B09 - 3
   21. What is the relationship between the current through a capacitor and the voltage across a capacitor?

   E5C16 - 1
   22. In polar coordinates, what is the impedance of a circuit that has an admittance of 7.09 millisiemens at 45 degrees?

   E5D03 - 2
   23. What device is used to store electrical energy in an electrostatic field?

   E6A16 - 1
   24. What are the majority charge carriers in N-type semiconductor material?

   E6B13 - 1
   25. What type of bias is required for an LED to emit light?

   E6C07 - 0
   26. In Figure E6-5, what is the schematic symbol for an AND gate?

   E6D02 - 1
   27. Exceeding what design rating can cause a cathode ray tube (CRT) to generate X-rays?

   E6E12 - 1
   28. What is a 'Jones filter' as used as part of a HF receiver IF stage?

   E6F12 - 2
   29. What absorbs the energy from light falling on a photovoltaic cell?

   E7A02 - 2
   30. How many output level changes are obtained for every two trigger pulses applied to the input of a T flip-flop circuit?

   E7B14 - 0
   31. In Figure E7-2, what is the purpose of C2?

   E7C07 - 1
   32. What kind of filter would you use to attenuate an interfering carrier signal while receiving an SSB transmission?

   E7D12 - 3
   33. What is the purpose of R2 in the circuit shown in Figure E7-3?

   E7E13 - 3
   34. Which of the following describes a common means of generating an SSB signal when using digital signal processing?

   E7F09 - 0
   35. What is the purpose of a frequency counter?

   E7G15 - 0
   36. What is the typical output impedance of an integrated circuit op-amp?

   E7H13 - 0
   37. What is the capture range of a phase-locked loop circuit?

   E8A07 - 1
   38. What determines the PEP-to-average power ratio of a single-sideband phone signal?

   E8B08 - 3
   39. What parameter does the modulating signal vary in a pulse-position modulation system?

   E8C11 - 1
   40. What spread-spectrum communications technique uses a high speed binary bit stream to shift the phase of an RF carrier?

   E8D13 - 1
   41. Which of the following is a typical value for the peak voltage at a standard U.S. household electrical outlet?

   E9A09 - 1
   42. What is meant by antenna bandwidth?

   E9B01 - 1
   43. In the antenna radiation pattern shown in Figure E9-1, what is the 3-dB beamwidth?

   E9C10 - 0
   44. How many elevation lobes appear in the forward direction of the antenna radiation pattern shown in Figure E9-2?

   E9D02 - 2
   45. How can linearly polarized Yagi antennas be used to produce circular polarization?

   E9E06 - 2
   46. What is the equivalent lumped-constant network for a hairpin matching system on a

   E9F09 - 1
   47. What is the approximate physical length of a solid polyethylene dielectric coaxial transmission line that is electrically one-quarter wavelength long at 7.2 MHz?

   E9G06 - 1
   48. On the Smith chart shown in Figure E9-3, what is the name for the large outer circle on which the reactance arcs terminate?

   E9H02 - 0
   49. What is the effective radiated power relative to a dipole of a repeater station with 200 watts transmitter power output, 4-dB feed line loss, 3.2-dB duplexer loss, 0.8-dB circulator loss and 10-dBd antenna gain?

   E0A09 - 2
   50. Which insulating material commonly used as a thermal conductor for some types of electronic devices is extremely toxic if broken or crushed and the particles are accidentally inhaled?