Practice Exam  - Element 2:  "EXTRA  CLASS"

Expires June 30, 2016


   E1A13 - 1
   1. Who must be in physical control of the station apparatus of an amateur station aboard any vessel or craft that is documented or registered in the United States?




  
 

   E1B09 - 2
   2. Which amateur stations may be operated in RACES?





 

   E1C02 - 0
    3. What is meant by automatic control of a station?





 

   E1D03 - 1
   4. What is a telecommand station in the amateur satellite service?





 

   E1E07 - 1
   5. What should a VE do if a candidate fails to comply with the examiner's instructions during an amateur operator license examination?





 

   E1F11 - 3
   6. Which of the following best describes one of the standards that must be met by an external RF power amplifier if it is to qualify for a grant of FCC certification?





 

   E2A09 - 0
   7. What do the terms L band and S band specify with regard to satellite communications?






   E2B19 - 2
   8. What special operating frequency restrictions are imposed on slow scan TV transmissions?






   E2C07 - 0
   9. What is the Cabrillo format?






   E2D06 - 0
   10. Which of the following is a commonly used 2-meter APRS frequency?






   E2E11 - 0
    11. What is the difference between direct FSK and audio FSK?






   E3A06 - 1
   12. What frequency range would you normally tune to find EME signals in the 2 meter band?







   E3B03 - 2
   13. What is the best time of day for transequatorial propagation?






   E3C03 - 3
   14. Where in the ionosphere does Aurora activity occur?






   E4A11 - 1
   15. Which of these instruments could be used for detailed analysis of digital signals?






   E4B09 - 3
   16. What is indicated if the current reading on an RF ammeter placed in series with the antenna feed line of a transmitter increases as the transmitter is tuned to resonance?






   E4C05 - 1
   17. What does a value of -174 dBm/Hz represent with regard to the noise floor of a receiver?






   E4D11 - 0
   18. Why are third-order intermodulation products created within a receiver of particular interest compared to other products?






   E4E01 - 0
   19. Which of the following types of receiver noise can often be reduced by use of a receiver noise blanker?






   E5A15 - 1
   20. What is the resonant frequency of a series RLC circuit if R is 56 ohms, L is 40 microhenrys and C is 200 picofarads?






   E5B11 - 1
   21. What is the phase angle between the voltage across and the current through a series RLC circuit if XC is 25 ohms, R is 100 ohms, and XL is 50 ohms?






   E5C09 - 0
   22. When using rectangular coordinates to graph the impedance of a circuit, what does the horizontal axis represent?






   E5D17 - 3
   23. How many watts are consumed in a circuit having a power factor of 0.6 if the input is 200V AC at 5 amperes?






   E6A05 - 2
   24. What is the alpha of a bipolar junction transistor?






   E6B11 - 0
   25. What is used to control the attenuation of RF signals by a PIN diode?






   E6C04 - 1
   26. Which of the following is the primary advantage of tri-state logic?






   E6D14 - 2
   27. Which is NOT true of a charge-coupled device (CCD)?






   E6E08 - 0
   28. How is power-supply voltage normally furnished to the most common type of monolithic microwave integrated circuit (MMIC)?






   E6F03 - 3
   29. What is the most common configuration of an optoisolator or optocoupler?







   E7A14 - 0
   30. What is a JK flip-flop?







   E7B10 - 1
   31. In Figure E7-1, what is the purpose of R1 and R2?






   E7C02 - 2
   32. A T-network with series capacitors and a parallel shunt inductor has which of the following properties?






   E7D01 - 3
   33. What is one characteristic of a linear electronic voltage regulator?







   E7E08 - 2
   34. What are the principal frequencies that appear at the output of a mixer circuit?







   E7F04 - 2
   35. What additional circuitry must be added to a 100-kHz crystal-controlled marker generator so as to provide markers at 50 and 25 kHz?






   E7G12 - 0
   36. What is an integrated circuit operational amplifier?






   E7H18 - 0
   37. What are the major spectral impurity components of phase-locked loop synthesizers?






   E8A09 - 2
   38. What type of waveform is produced by human speech?






   E8B02 - 3
   39. How does the modulation index of a phase-modulated emission vary with RF carrier frequency (the modulated frequency)?






   E8C01 - 3
   40. Which one of the following digital codes consists of elements having unequal length?






   E8D15 - 0
   41. Which of the following is a typical value for the RMS voltage at a standard U.S. household electrical power outlet?






   E9A08 - 0
   42. What is meant by antenna gain?






   E9B03 - 1
   43. In the antenna radiation pattern shown in Figure E9-1, what is the front-to-side ratio?






   E9C03 - 2
   44. What is the radiation pattern of two 1/4-wavelength vertical antennas spaced 1/2-wavelength apart and fed in phase?






   E9D15 - 2
   45. Which of the following would provide the best RF ground for your station?






   E9E06 - 2
   46. What is the equivalent lumped-constant network for a hairpin matching system on a






   E9F12 - 3
   47. What impedance does a 1/4-wavelength transmission line present to a generator when the line is open at the far end?






   E9G02 - 1
   48. What type of coordinate system is used in a Smith chart?






   E9H08 - 0
   49. What is the function of a sense antenna?






   E0A10 - 0
   50. What material found in some electronic components such as high-voltage capacitors and transformers is considered toxic?