Practice Exam  - Element 2:  "EXTRA  CLASS"

Expires June 30, 2016


   E1A05 - 2
   1. What is the maximum power output permitted on the 60 meter band?




  
 

   E1B11 - 0
   2. What is the permitted mean power of any spurious emission relative to the mean power of the fundamental emission from a station transmitter or external RF amplifier installed after January 1, 2003, and transmitting on a frequency below 30 MHZ?





 

   E1C07 - 2
    3. What is meant by local control?





 

   E1D10 - 1
   4. Which amateur stations are eligible to be telecommand stations?





 

   E1E10 - 2
   5. What must the administering VEs do after the administration of a successful examination for an amateur operator license?





 

   E1F11 - 3
   6. Which of the following best describes one of the standards that must be met by an external RF power amplifier if it is to qualify for a grant of FCC certification?





 

   E2A12 - 3
   7. What is one way to predict the location of a satellite at a given time?






   E2B14 - 0
   8. What aspect of an amateur slow-scan television signal encodes the brightness of the picture?






   E2C10 - 3
   9. Why might a DX station state that they are listening on another frequency?






   E2D08 - 0
   10. Which of the following types of packet frames is used to transmit APRS beacon data?






   E2E12 - 0
    11. Which type of digital communication does not support keyboard-to-keyboard operation?






   E3A10 - 3
   12. Which of the following is a good technique for making meteor-scatter contacts?







   E3B09 - 0
   13. At what time of day is gray-line propagation most likely to occur?






   E3C08 - 1
   14. What is the name of the high-angle wave in HF propagation that travels for some distance within the F2 region?






   E4A07 - 1
   15. Which of the following is an advantage of using an antenna analyzer compared to an SWR bridge to measure antenna SWR?






   E4B08 - 2
   16. Which of the following is a characteristic of a good DC voltmeter?






   E4C09 - 2
   17. Which of the following choices is a good reason for selecting a high frequency for the design of the IF in a conventional HF or VHF communications receiver?






   E4D04 - 1
   18. Which of the following may reduce or eliminate intermodulation interference in a repeater caused by another transmitter operating in close proximity?






   E4E07 - 2
   19. How can you determine if line noise interference is being generated within your home?






   E5A08 - 2
   20. What is the phase relationship between the current through and the voltage across a series resonant circuit at resonance?






   E5B03 - 3
   21. The capacitor in an RC circuit is discharged to what percentage of the starting voltage after two time constants?






   E5C17 - 2
   22. In rectangular coordinates, what is the impedance of a circuit that has an admittance of 5 millisiemens at -30 degrees?






   E5D01 - 0
   23. What is the result of skin effect?






   E6A01 - 2
   24. In what application is gallium arsenide used as a semiconductor material in preference to germanium or silicon?






   E6B11 - 0
   25. What is used to control the attenuation of RF signals by a PIN diode?






   E6C01 - 2
   26. What is the recommended power supply voltage for TTL series integrated circuits?






   E6D02 - 1
   27. Exceeding what design rating can cause a cathode ray tube (CRT) to generate X-rays?






   E6E06 - 3
   28. What characteristics of the MMIC make it a popular choice for VHF through microwave circuits?






   E6F05 - 0
   29. Which of the following describes an optical shaft encoder?







   E7A07 - 3
   30. What logical operation does a NAND gate perform?







   E7B16 - 0
   31. What is the effect of intermodulation products in a linear power amplifier?






   E7C02 - 2
   32. A T-network with series capacitors and a parallel shunt inductor has which of the following properties?






   E7D01 - 3
   33. What is one characteristic of a linear electronic voltage regulator?







   E7E14 - 2
   34. What is meant by direct conversion when referring to a software defined receiver?







   E7F02 - 1
   35. Which of the following would be used to reduce a signal's frequency by a factor of ten?






   E7G05 - 0
   36. How can unwanted ringing and audio instability be prevented in a multi-section op-amp RC audio filter circuit?






   E7H08 - 0
   37. What is a Gunn diode oscillator?






   E8A13 - 2
   38. What is an advantage of using digital signals instead of analog signals to convey the same information?






   E8B07 - 0
   39. When using a pulse-width modulation system, why is the transmitter's peak power greater than its average power?






   E8C13 - 1
   40. What is one advantage of using JT-65 coding?






   E8D09 - 1
   41. What is meant by circularly polarized electromagnetic waves?






   E9A07 - 2
   42. What is a folded dipole antenna?






   E9B13 - 1
   43. What does the abbreviation NEC stand for when applied to antenna modeling programs?






   E9C07 - 0
   44. What type of antenna pattern over real ground is shown in Figure E9-2?






   E9D09 - 3
   45. What is an advantage of using top loading in a shortened HF vertical antenna?






   E9E08 - 3
   46. Which of the following measurements is characteristic of a mismatched transmission line?






   E9F15 - 0
   47. What impedance does a 1/2-wavelength transmission line present to a generator when the line is open at the far end?






   E9G03 - 2
   48. Which of the following is often determined using a Smith chart?






   E9H02 - 0
   49. What is the effective radiated power relative to a dipole of a repeater station with 200 watts transmitter power output, 4-dB feed line loss, 3.2-dB duplexer loss, 0.8-dB circulator loss and 10-dBd antenna gain?






   E0A09 - 2
   50. Which insulating material commonly used as a thermal conductor for some types of electronic devices is extremely toxic if broken or crushed and the particles are accidentally inhaled?