Practice Exam  - Element 3:  "GENERAL  CLASS"

Expires June 30, 2015

   G1A07 - 2
   1. Which of the following frequencies is within the General Class portion of the 75 meter phone band?


   G1B03 - 0
   2. Which of the following is a purpose of a beacon station as identified in the FCC Rules?


   G1C06 - 3
    3. Which of the following is a limitation on transmitter power on 1.8 MHz band?


   G1D05 - 3
   4. Which of the following is sufficient for you to be an administering VE for a Technician Class operator license examination?


   G1E03 - 1
   5. In what ITU region is operation in the 7.175 to 7.300 MHz band permitted for a control operator holding an FCC-issued General Class license?


   G2A08 - 1
   6. Which of the following is a recommended way to break into a conversation when using phone?


   G2B12 - 2
   7. When is an amateur station allowed to use any means at its disposal to assist another station in distress?

   G2C06 - 3
   8. What does the term 'zero beat' mean in CW operation?

   G2D10 - 1
   9. What is QRP operation?

   G2E13 - 0
   10. In the PACTOR protocol, what is meant by an NAK response to a transmitted packet?

   G3A13 - 2
    11. What does the A-index indicate?

   G3B08 - 1
   12. What does MUF stand for?

   G3C03 - 2
   13. Why is the F2 region mainly responsible for the longest distance radio wave propagation?

   G4A14 - 1
   14. How should the transceiver audio input be adjusted when transmitting PSK31 data signals?

   G4B04 - 3
   15. What signal source is connected to the vertical input of an oscilloscope when checking the RF envelope pattern of a transmitted signal?

   G4C07 - 0
   16. What is one good way to avoid unwanted effects of stray RF energy in an amateur station?

   G4D10 - 0
   17. How close to the lower edge of the 40 meter General Class phone segment should your displayed carrier frequency be when using 3 kHz wide LSB?

   G4E01 - 2
   18. What is a 'capacitance hat', when referring to a mobile antenna?

   G5A12 - 1
   19. What is one reason to use an impedance matching transformer?

   G5B02 - 2
   20. How does the total current relate to the individual currents in each branch of a parallel circuit?

   G5C11 - 2
   21. What is the inductance of a 20 millihenry inductor in series with a 50 millihenry inductor?

   G6A01 - 0
   22. Which of the following is an important characteristic for capacitors used to filter the DC output of a switching power supply?

   G6B01 - 2
   23. What is the peak-inverse-voltage rating of a rectifier?

   G6C06 - 3
   24. Which of the following describes an integrated circuit operational amplifier?

   G7A07 - 0
   25. What is the output waveform of an unfiltered full-wave rectifier connected to a resistive load?

   G7B10 - 3
   26. Which of the following is a characteristic of a Class A amplifier?

   G7C11 - 0
   27. What is meant by the term 'software defined radio' (SDR)?

   G8A01 - 3
   28. What is the name of the process that changes the envelope of an RF wave to carry information?

   G8B01 - 0
   29. What receiver stage combines a 14.250 MHz input signal with a 13.795 MHz oscillator signal to produce a 455 kHz intermediate frequency (IF) signal?

   G9A02 - 1
   30. What are the typical characteristic impedances of coaxial cables used for antenna feed lines at amateur stations?

   G9B08 - 0
   31. How does the feed-point impedance of a 1/2 wave dipole change as the feed-point location is moved from the center toward the ends?

   G9C10 - 3
   32. Which of the following is a Yagi antenna design variable that could be adjusted to optimize forward gain, front-to-back ratio, or SWR bandwidth?

   G9D03 - 3
   33. At what height above ground is an NVIS antenna typically installed?

   G0A13 - 3
   34. What precaution should be taken when installing a ground-mounted antenna?

   G0B01 - 0
   35. Which wire or wires in a four-conductor line cord should be attached to fuses or circuit breakers in a device operated from a 240-VAC single-phase source?