Practice Exam  - Element 3:  "GENERAL  CLASS"

Expires June 30, 2015


   G1A07 - 2
   1. Which of the following frequencies is within the General Class portion of the 75 meter phone band?




  
 

   G1B02 - 3
   2. With which of the following conditions must beacon stations comply?





 

   G1C09 - 0
    3. What is the maximum symbol rate permitted for RTTY or data emission transmitted on the 1.25 meter and 70 centimeter bands





 

   G1D01 - 2
   4. Which of the following is a proper way to identify when transmitting using phone on General Class frequencies if you have a CSCE for the required elements but your upgrade from Technician has not appeared in the FCC database?





 

   G1E10 - 3
   5. What portion of the 10 meter band is available for repeater use?





 

   G2A11 - 2
   6. What does the expression 'CQ DX' usually indicate?





 

   G2B09 - 0
   7. Who may be the control operator of an amateur station transmitting in RACES to assist relief operations during a disaster?






   G2C02 - 0
   8. What should you do if a CW station sends 'QRS'?






   G2D10 - 1
   9. What is QRP operation?






   G2E09 - 3
   10. In what segment of the 20 meter band are most PSK31 operations commonly found?






   G3A10 - 2
    11. What causes HF propagation conditions to vary periodically in a 28-day cycle?






   G3B09 - 2
   12. What is the approximate maximum distance along the Earth's surface that is normally covered in one hop using the F2 region?







   G3C08 - 0
   13. Why are HF scatter signals in the skip zone usually weak?






   G4A02 - 2
   14. What is one advantage of selecting the opposite or 'reverse' sideband when receiving CW signals on a typical HF transceiver?






   G4B16 - 1
   15. What signals are used to conduct a two-tone test?






   G4C03 - 2
   16. What sound is heard from an audio device or telephone if there is interference from a nearby single-sideband phone transmitter?






   G4D10 - 0
   17. How close to the lower edge of the 40 meter General Class phone segment should your displayed carrier frequency be when using 3 kHz wide LSB?






   G4E08 - 0
   18. What is the name of the process by which sunlight is changed directly into electricity?






   G5A01 - 2
   19. What is impedance?






   G5B07 - 2
   20. Which value of an AC signal results in the same power dissipation as a DC voltage of the same value?






   G5C03 - 1
   21. Which of the following components should be added to an existing resistor to increase the resistance?






   G6A11 - 1
   22. Why would it be important to minimize the mutual inductance between two inductors?






   G6B01 - 2
   23. What is the peak-inverse-voltage rating of a rectifier?






   G6C06 - 3
   24. Which of the following describes an integrated circuit operational amplifier?






   G7A07 - 0
   25. What is the output waveform of an unfiltered full-wave rectifier connected to a resistive load?






   G7B05 - 2
   26. How many states does a 3-bit binary counter have?






   G7C11 - 0
   27. What is meant by the term 'software defined radio' (SDR)?






   G8A07 - 0
   28. Which of the following phone emissions uses the narrowest frequency bandwidth?






   G8B02 - 1
   29. If a receiver mixes a 13.800 MHz VFO with a 14.255 MHz received signal to produce a 455 kHz intermediate frequency (IF) signal, what type of interference will a 13.345 MHz signal produce in the receiver?







   G9A02 - 1
   30. What are the typical characteristic impedances of coaxial cables used for antenna feed lines at amateur stations?







   G9B01 - 1
   31. What is one disadvantage of a directly fed random-wire antenna?






   G9C04 - 0
   32. Which statement about a three-element; single-band Yagi antenna is true?






   G9D03 - 3
   33. At what height above ground is an NVIS antenna typically installed?







   G0A10 - 3
   34. What is one thing that can be done if evaluation shows that a neighbor might receive more than the allowable limit of RF exposure from the main lobe of a directional antenna?







   G0B11 - 3
   35. Which of the following is good engineering practice for lightning protection grounds?